November 1, 2003, Vol.3,
No.21.
Two new articles every two weeks.
Bible Question? E-mail
us.
THIS ISSUE: "Baptized
for the Dead?" (see below)
and "Hallowed Be Your
Name"
ANSWERING YOUR QUESTIONS:
Baptized for the
Dead?
by Keith Sharp
 QUESTION:
What are your thoughts on 1 Corinthians 15:29?
ANSWER: Thank you for
your question.
1 Corinthians 15:29 says, "Otherwise, what will they
do who are baptized for the dead, if the dead do not rise at
all? Why then are they baptized for the dead?"
In the entirety of First Corinthians chapter fifteen, the
inspired apostle Paul is arguing that all mankind shall be raised
from the dead.
Whatever baptism "for the dead" is, the Corinthians
obviously practiced it. Their practice was, according to the
import of Paul's question, inconsistent with their disavowal
of the resurrection.
Mike Willis comments on this verse, "There are almost
as many interpretations of this verse as there are commentators
(I read forty different positions)...." (Willis, 556-7).
I will confess I have not read forty commentaries on First Corinthians,
nor do I plan to. Brother Willis gives a full discussion of the
various positions taken on the passage (557-562).
Of course, the Mormons claim that this verse teaches the doctrine
that a live person can be baptized to save a dead person who
never heard the gospel. This is parallel to the Catholic doctrine
that encourages living relatives of a deceased loved one to pray
his soul out of an imaginary place called Purgatory. Both doctrines
flatly contradict one of the primary principles of divine justice,
i.e., God holds each person accountable for his own actions done
while alive on this earth (cf., e.g., Exodus 32:31-33; Ezekiel
14:12-20; 18:1-32; 2 Corinthians 5:10). Whatever 1 Corinthians
15:29 means, it cannot be advocating vicarious baptism for dead
sinners.
The Greek word translated "for" is the preposition
"huper." With the grammatical construction found
in this verse, the word has three possible meanings in the New
Testament, depending upon the context. It can mean "for
one's safety, for one's advantage or benefit...", "...in
the place of, instead of," or "of the impelling or
moving cause; on account of, for the sake of..." (Thayer.
638-9).
It is possible that Paul used the preposition in one of the
first two senses but without approval of the practice. This would
be an ad hominem argument, one built upon a practice of
the Corinthian brethren which Paul did not approve. In other
words, the Corinthians may have been practicing baptism vicariously
in hope of saving dead, lost loved ones, and Paul used their
false practice as an argument against their denial of the resurrection.
I view this position as far fetched and strained.
Another possibility, which I view as correct, is that the
apostle uses the preposition "huper" in its
third sense, "of the impelling or moving cause." One
"impelling or moving cause" to be baptized is the blessed
hope of reunion with those beloved saints who have gone before.
This interpretation both fits the lexical definition of "huper"
and harmonizes with other Scripture teaching. Furthermore, it
is a fact that the hope of reunion with the blessed dead is a
primary impetus for becoming a Christian. This, then, is what
I believe the passage is teaching.
_____________________
Works Cited
Thayer, J.H., A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament.
Willis, Mike, A Commentary on Paul's First Epistle to the
Corinthians
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